I know a little about Poor Law and Parish Relief, but whilst research something I came across this article from 1830 and have a couple of questions that people might be able to answer:




Would the outcome of the case be that the grandfather not have been able to have the children live with him?

These are small rural parishes that didn't have alms houses let alone workhouses, so what would the losing parish have done with the orphaned children?

I know that the parishes were all trying to avoid financial liability for orphans etc., but it baffles me where someone is apparently offering them a home the authorities are saying no.