Hi,

My great-grandfather (Walter Peter Inglott 1883-1956) listed his father as Vincent Nicolas Inglott (1850-1920), but Walter does not have a GRO birth record, and is not listed in Vincent's will at all.

I just read that illegitimate children were not legally allowed to inherit. Would this have been true around the time the will was written (before 1920)?

My number one suspicion for there being no birth record, and his name not being in the will was because of the shame of illegitimacy, but if there is also a legal element then that would further back this theory.