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dcmbarton
31-10-2006, 5:38 PM
If a couple get divorced, and the female marries again, is she likely to be listed under her maiden name again in the marriage indexes? Presumably when she divorced she would have reverted to her maiden name? We're looking at sometime between 1936 and 1953.

I know the court service will search for divorces but this would cost over £50! and no doubt would tell me very little apart from the actual date of the divorce (according to them!)

David

jeeb
31-10-2006, 5:52 PM
Hi David,
The short answer to your question is that it could be either. There is no law stating what anyone must call themselves but if the woman had children she is more likely to have retained her married name and married under that. Of course if you suspect a marriage is the one you are looking for and you get a marriage certificate it will give the brides father and of course he should still have his daughters maiden name.
Cheers Jeremy

dcmbarton
31-10-2006, 8:48 PM
Found it! Interestingly enough, she was listed under both names - maiden and married. Presumably she would have signed the marriage certificate "Winifred May Barton, nee Mahar"

David