I have a child born 1772 to an unmarried woman, his father being already married. However, the boy was given his father's surname and appears to have been acknowledged by him as he appears on an old family genealogical chart and also had contact with others in the family. He owned some property in Shaftesbury where he was born, possibly before he joined the Royal Horse Artillery where he became a Lieutenant so must have had some money earlier in life.

Can anyone tell me what the status of a 'base born' child was please. Was it common/legal for the father to recognise him in this way?

Many thanks and a Happy New 2012 to everyone.

Mary