Ed McKie
01-12-2005, 6:46 AM
This may hve been raised before, but I cant find it and some of our erudite friends may care to comment.
I am aware of an engraved portrait of one of my wifes ancestors created about 1795.
I have been able to establish three copies of this, one at Harvard, one in the British Museum and another at the British Portrait Gallery. Harvard does not claim copyright of a reproduction of this, I dont know the BMs attitude but the BPG claim copyright of a reproduction.
I find all this rather strange to say the least. I know that "image" ownership is a bit convoluted, but I would have thought that an engraving is more akin to a book rather than anything else, being capable of being reproduced many times.
So how on earth can the owners of one copy claim copyright of say a scan or a digital photo of such.
As I guess that the original engraving was a commissioned work as a form of advertising, in modern times of course the sitter would have owned the copyright.
Cheers..Ed
I am aware of an engraved portrait of one of my wifes ancestors created about 1795.
I have been able to establish three copies of this, one at Harvard, one in the British Museum and another at the British Portrait Gallery. Harvard does not claim copyright of a reproduction of this, I dont know the BMs attitude but the BPG claim copyright of a reproduction.
I find all this rather strange to say the least. I know that "image" ownership is a bit convoluted, but I would have thought that an engraving is more akin to a book rather than anything else, being capable of being reproduced many times.
So how on earth can the owners of one copy claim copyright of say a scan or a digital photo of such.
As I guess that the original engraving was a commissioned work as a form of advertising, in modern times of course the sitter would have owned the copyright.
Cheers..Ed